I've found out from DH tonight that BIL is planning to sell the house behind her back. He's going to sell it to a friend who wants to flip it as an investment property so it won't be on the market, no viewings etc. Friend will then rent it to him until after the divorce so that SIL can't get half of the deposit equity. SIL pays the mortgage by putting money in his account and he pays so I think she'll never know
Even if he sell it privately he needs a home report, so a surveyor will have to visit to do a survey .
And the husband will have to sign legal documents as part of the sale to say that there’s no one who has any rights to the property under the Act. So that would be fraud.
And if the husband tells his solicitor that he’s married, they will not proceed until they have seen evidence of a divorce.
The wife has occupancy rights as she has moved back into the house - I think she has to leave for 2 years before she loses them. So her being at her mothers for 8 months doesn’t matter.
And even if the sale did go through, the husband’s friend’s right to occupy the property would only be if he had bought it in good faith, unaware of the vendor’s wife’s rights. It would be hard to argue he was unaware, given the nature of the sale.
Even then, the Friend can’t rent the house to him unless he’s a registered landlord. So the information about the property being rented out will be in the public domaine on the register.
The husband would have to sign a tenancy agreement saying that he was the only adult living there.
Even if all of this works , the money in the bank would still be a marital asset.
The wife is not just entitled to a share of the deposit, she is entitled to a share of the capital gain, although that might not be very much if it was only bought a year ago.
There are so many holes in this plan that even I can spot and I’m not a Solicitor.