My sister has been with her DP for sixteen years and they have a ten year old DD.
Her DP has refused to legally formalise their finances (marriage etc), as he believes he brought more to the table money-wise.
When they bought their house, he put roughly 70% of their deposit and she put in 30%. If it's sold, that split will be what they reach receive.
Their salaries go into a joint account and all bills, including mortgage, are paid from that.
Was I unreasonable to suggest that she stops paying the mortgage because she's paying off his share? They've lived there for thirteen years and have £50k left on the mortgage. is worth around £400k.
Was I unreasonable?