To wonder how many of the men in the 40% are actually being abused?

[rosiejaune]

www.theguardian.com/lifeandstyle/2019/feb/05/no-job-no-savings-women-fighting-economic-abuse-illegal

"It found that one in five people in the general population have experienced economic abuse, 60% of them women. The same study suggested women experience it for longer, with nearly 80% of those reporting abuse saying it lasted more than five years, compared with 23% of the men.

There was also a marked difference in what was interpreted as abuse. “Women tended to say their partners denied them money for food, rent or electricity,” says Sharp-Jeffs. “Men were more likely to say they’d been denied money for beer or hobbies.”"

I.e. is it actually that the household is struggling for money, and there just isn't enough for beer or hobbies? This then gets reframed as the woman being controlling, rather than just trying to be financially responsible.

Cries for help - parasuicide. Bloody phone.

The medical definition of attempted suicide is a failed attempt to take ones own life.

But is that the definition the people doing the survey are going by?

That's the problem with using surveys like this and the ops example as facts. We all have different interpretations.

I know someone who 'attempted suicide' because their ex wouldn't come back to them. That's the story they used to tell. Until a night out when they were drunk and they admitted they had a few martini and lemonade got tipsy and then and made out to their family they had taken a load of paracetamol to try and force the partner to come back. Again this person had spent years emotionally abusing and manipulating the partner. The partner decided enough was enough and wouldn't go back.

I am in no doubt this person would say they had attempted suicide. But they didnt.

But again, I am sure many people in the survey have attempted suicide, but the results could be messed up by people lying or mis interpreting the question or people refusing to admit when they have.

They define suicide attempts as attempts to take ones own life, they would have had to have made this clear to the people being asked.

That some people will lie, misinterpret the question or fail to admit that they had done so does not negate the findings - that is true of all research.

That women choose less violent methods than men could be a reason that ‘more women have attempted suicide’ - for example, an overdose is much less likely to be successful when compared to a hanging.

I didn't say it negates it.

But how no survey can claim to be fact because of the above.

Not being entirely accurate and negating or 2 different things.

I realise they are two different things.

I also realise any research of this nature is not likely to be entirely accurate. My point was that the ‘attempted suicide’ WAS defined by the study, as this was questioned byPP’s. And that definition would have been made clear to any respondents. Another thing that was questioned.

You say it was made clear. But having been a participant in surveys, around mental health I can tell you they aren't always made clear. Or the explanation can be biased towards the answer they are hoping for.

As I said, I am not saying it's wrong. Simply that I question the validity of this type of survey.

You say you know the difference between negate and not entity accurate. However I asked the question because no one said the survey was negated.