I said he was falsely accused because everything I know about him tells me he didn't do it.
But you still don't know the accusations were false.
Why not just say that he was accused of rape? Why the need to specify "falsely" accused?
The only evidence he did is that she said so.
And the only evidence that you have that he was falsely accused is that he said so.
Why does his word hold more water than her word?
I understand he wasn't convicted but neither was she. So there was no proof he raped her but there also was no proof that she made it up.
Why is it okay to label her a false accuser with no solid proof but labeling him a rapist with no solid proof would be wrong? Why can't you just say that you have no idea what happened because you weren't there and are not making any judgement either way?
his was not in the media but was on facebook eyc in gossip
If he wasn't named in the media and he was only named via gossip in the community then how exactly would an anonymity law have protected him?
I think there is some confusion here tbh. People always seem to be under the impression that if people accused of rape were allowed anonymity until charged/convicted then it would suddenly mean that word spreading and gossiping would stop. It doesn't work that way.
Anonymity for rape suspects only means that he won't be allowed to be named in the media. That's it. It doesn't cover people gossiping and spreading his name around. You can't stop people gossiping and judging.