I'd prefer to debate the technical term freedom of movement within the EU.
France, Germany and Italy imposed controls on A8 immigration.
The UK didn't.
As a result, at the time of A8 accession, around ten times the projected numbers arriving in this country, while France, Germany and Italy did not have similar issues.
Was the French, German and Italian position racist, in your view?
Had the UK imposed transitional control so that (a) the A8 economies were more in step with the of the EU prior to immigration controls being listed and (b) the UK would not have been the sole destination of such immigration for some years then the heat would have been taken out of the debate?