I don't know about cases - I was perusing Wikpedia (road to hell, yes I know) and came across this definition, "malice aforethought" apparently being one of 5 elements of common law murder:
With malice aforethought - ... The courts broadened the scope of murder by eliminating the requirement of actual premeditation and deliberation as well as true malice. All that was required for malice aforethought to exist is that the perpetrator act with one of the four states of mind that constitutes "malice."
The four states of mind recognized as constituting "malice" are:
Intent to kill,
Intent to inflict grievous bodily harm short of death,
Reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life (sometimes described as an "abandoned and malignant heart"), or
Intent to commit a dangerous felony (the "felony-murder" doctrine).
Under state of mind (i), intent to kill, the deadly weapon rule applies. Thus, if the defendant intentionally uses a deadly weapon or instrument against the victim, such use authorizes a permissive inference of intent to kill. In other words, "intent follows the bullet."
Under state of mind (iii), an "abandoned and malignant heart", the killing must result from defendant's conduct involving a reckless indifference to human life and a conscious disregard of an unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily injury
And so on.
I understand the point about the miraculous rescue the Philpotts intended to effect, but is there a point at which English law would say, "Ok, no matter what you say you intended to acheive, shooting x at point blank range was sheer madness and no reasonable person would have foreseen any consequences other than death ... ergo, Murder"?