A clunky question I know but this was something I was musing about today. Of course it’s directly linked to fertility and so is obvious in one sense.
But I feel like there’s a grey area. For example I think referring to a 30 year old and saying “she hasn’t got children” makes perfect sense, and referring to a 70 year old and saying “she didn’t have children” also makes sense. They are both purely statements of fact.
So when does the switch take place?! In my head it’s probably around 45, or maybe late forties. But would referring to a woman aged 45 and saying “she didn’t have children” rather than “she hasn’t got children” make sense? It feels like it would be a vague insult in a way that I can’t quite pinpoint. Perhaps as it draws attention to ageing and getting older.