At risk of being piled upon for pedantry can anyone explain why the could of, would of, should of phenomenon doesn't extend to other contractions involving have? I don't ever see people writing "I of been feeling unwell today," or "I hear you of a new car." It's always explained as a phonetic thing but doesn't that affect any 've contraction?
Anyway, just wondering about this. Full disclosure - it drives me fucking insane and I really struggle to get past it when people write it. I realise this exposes me to having my own grammar analysed for perfection. I'm also completely sympathetic where eg dyslexia is a factor but it's so common now there's no way that's the reason in most cases. I also accept it's probably my own problem to get over. Hard hat on!