have namechanged for this as the facts are a bit specific.
dp is going to be starting work for a fairly wealthy individual who happens to be a family friend.
For the type of work he will be doing he will need a car.
the family friend is quite happy to let dp use it for private use as well (he and we are hoping that this will mean we can sell our car, and the cash from this will help us out)
we understand that if dp was employed by acompany, and the company owned a car which dp alone used, then if dp used it for private use this would be classed as an 'employee benefit' and dp would have to pay a lot of extra tax
however, dp's accountant seems to be telling him that if the car was brought and owned by family friend privately, and family friend himself employs dp, then dp would not have to pay extra income tax.
I don't really understand why, and am worried dp isn't getting good advice. I spoke to the accountant today as dp is out of the country, and he just kept talking about how it was ok as family friend could 'claim back the business mileage'
is anyone able to shed any light on this ?(its most likely that family friend will employ dp, rather than them setting up a company to do this)
I was thinking that a situation where someone employs a nanny and buys them a car to use for personal and work might be a similar analogy so hoping someone can help!