Hello mumsnetters, a dad infiltrating the ranks! I've seen some of you offer some good advice re: flexible working arrangements, and currently I'm fuming about the situation my wife is in, so thought I'd see what you ladies think. Apologies if it's a bit long.
My wife is employed as a project manager by a large investment bank, which has always been pretty good on flexible working. Before going on maternity leave, she informally told her manager (who we both considered to be a friend until now....) that she was going to come back on 3 days a week, and he had no objections, obviously subject to submitting an FWA request. Back in April, a friend who does a similar job had submitted a FWA for 3 days, which was initially fine with her direct manager, but at the last minute was rejected and told that she had to work 4 days minimum. That alarmed my wife, who immediately submitted her own FWA, with her manager still implying that he would support 3 days.
After 13 weeks, her manager finally organised a meeting to "discuss" the application. However, there was no discussion, he simply told her that it was being rejected, that 4 days might be acceptable, and giving a bunch of reasons that essentially boiled down to "things might go wrong when you're not in the office". My wife offered multiple suggestions (working 3.5 days, doing long hours on the 3 days she was in, job sharing, taking a different role), but they would not accept any of those and offered no compromises except the 4 days. From talking to two or three other ladies on maternity leave, it appears that their requests for 3 days were also being turned down. It's extremely apparent that a decision has been made at the top to not allow people to come back on anything less than 4 days a week, and the managers are simply concocting reasons in order to tow the party line.
My wife appealed this decision, and went through a process with HR (Hardly Reliable...). They seemed to have some sympathy, but ultimately just sided with the managers. They pretty much brushed over the point that they had taken 3 months to respond, by saying that the manager "perhaps needed some education in the FWA process", even though he had read exactly the same notes regarding the process as us. They also implied that one of the reasons was because my wife dared to go on holiday in the last of those 13 weeks!!!
Having little choice (the job pays very well, she would never be able to find a comparable job with part time hours), my wife extremely reluctantly decided to accept the offer of the 4 days. However, now her manager is saying that the 4 days was a suggestion rather than a compromise, and so she will have to submit another FWA request based on 4 days and "try" to get that approved! He is also asking her to confirm when she plans to go back full time - in my book that is completely irrelevant as to whether an FWA is approved or not.
TBH, I think most of my anger is that someone who my wife has worked for for 8 years (and me too for a couple), and who we considered to be a friend, could be so utterly unsympathetic, disrespectful and virtually smug in his handling of the request. But, more importantly, my questions are:
- If we took this to an employment tribunal, would it get anywhere? From reading notes, I see that one of the grounds for going to a tribunal is that the process was not followed - this is blatantly true in the case of taking 3 months to set up a meeting, but also the fact that it's obvious they are applying a blanket policy. My own concern about that is that whilst it is a blanket policy, the decision could possibly be justified in my wife's particular case. Would a tribunal be lengthy/expensive?
- Can they make her submit a second FWA to get 4 days? It's never been "formally" offered as a compromise, but it has been mentioned as a "solution" multiple times (in the meeting, in the rejection letter and in the appeal decision).
- The requests are not being approved/rejected by line managers - they are being sent "up the chain" for approval by senior managers, who do not have information about circumstances, job requirements etc. Would that be grounds for suggesting that the requests are not being reviewed appropriately?
- I always slightly cringe at dubious sexual discrimination cases, but having done some reading, it does appear to me that having an unspoken policy of not allowing part time workers would constitute indirect sexual discrimination - the majority of part timers being new mothers. Would the company be able to justify that (e.g. on grounds of business need)?
Thanks for any help
Mark