DP has just resigned from his job.
They are saying because he has taken however many days holiday (which he had to use as their paternity leave was so shite, but that's a different matter) and he won't be leaving until July 28th he hasn't actually accrued the amount of holiday he has used, and therefore will have taken 7.5 days more than he was allowed.
They say it's classed as an overpayment of his salary and are going to pay him around £500 less this month because of it.
It seems this is legal and the way it normally goes but my question is the way they take it.
Apparently the HR lady is saying they will take it off his NET wage this month, so he'll be paying tax on it, but I can't see how that makes sense, he has already paid tax on it when they paid him, why would he pay it again now? Should it not be in his deductions before tax?