Our contracts state no sick pay (outside of SSP). However, the company has always paid people their full salary when off sick. We've never asked for Drs notes. Very much a trust system.
Company is - to be honest - too lax on this and various other things, in part because until now there hasn't been anyone with the remit to manage an absence process.
A junior employee has recently been asked for a Drs note to cover an ongoing absence, for the purposes of SSP. This has come as quite a shock to said employee and will have a significant impact on their finances next month (they are currently on their 9th day of absence).
For clarity, this person had another extended period of absence earlier in the year (also completely legitimate). They were paid in full.
Employee has contacted me (not officially their boss but a 'senior' employee) asking if this is a 'policy change' (in which case they feel it should have been communicated) or if they're being singled out due to their previous absence, in which case they feel like they're being treated unfairly.
My question - legally, should this change in 'unofficial' policy have been communicated, or is the fact that contractually the company offers no sick pay enough to cover it?
To further muddy the waters, employee has (off their own back) been working from home while ill. Obviously not to full capacity, but covering urgent stuff and responding to emails. Could they claim that they have been WFH on that basis and therefore deserve at least partial payment?
I have advised them to contact our external HR service, but they are reluctant to do this in the first instance if it can be resolved internally.