I just wondered if there is anyone on here with knowledge of employment law who may be able to help me.
I was on sick leave from my job for several months following a close bereavement, during which I received sick pay. By the end of April this year they began pressuring me to make a decision regarding a return. I still did not feel in a position to return, so I gave my notice in, however, for some reason I was never issued with a P45.
Around a month later I decided I had been a bit hasty and contacted my employer to ask if I could return part time 3 days a week (was previously full time) on a less stressful role than previously. They agreed and told me this was a “new position rather than a continuous role” and that they could only offer me the “starting salary” for this role.
I am now back to doing more or less what I was doing before. They have now offered me a pay rise and asked me to go up to 4 days, which I am happy to do, however, I would like to raise with them the issue of holiday entitlement and whether my employment is classed as continuous given that I never received a P45. We are entitled to 20 days holiday a year, running from January to December. Assuming that my employment is continuous, I believe I am entitled to 6 days holiday pay from June to December, starting again at 16 days for the year from next January. More importantly, I would like my employment to be regarded as continuous for redundancy purposes in case this happens at any point (I have been there over 10 years) or would they be likely to try and make me redundant on the basis that I gave my notice in even though I never received a P45? I just want to make sure I am correct before I raise these issues with them and don’t know anyone IRL with the knowledge to ask.