I'm asking this on behalf of a friend.
Employer has one main shop that he runs, and one other small shop 20 miles away, which he employs my friend to run on his own. It's ony open 6 hrs a day, five days, and he lives close by.
He has worked there for 10 years but the employer has never given him a contract.
Now they are closing his little shop, which technically makes him redundant and he has worked out that they owe him £4,000 redundancy money.
However, they are saying he must instead work in the main shop. If not then he has to resign and they won't have to pay him any redundancy money.
He can't work in the main shop because although it's only 20 miles the roads are so congested that the drive would take him well over 2 hours a day, and he is the carer for his elderly parents. He can leave them daily for 6 hrs because he is only 5 minutes away and could be called home quickly in an emergency. If he had to commute he wold be absent for about 9 hours, and would be an hour away - not good if one of them had a fall etc.
Neither of us has a clue about the law.
- Can they make him move to the other branch or forfeit his £4k?
- Does it matter that they have never given him a formal written contract? Does it change his legal rights re: redundancy?
- Should he perhaps do a deal, asking for £2k as a compromise?
Thanking you in advance.