Can anyone please tell me if this is correct as im totally confused.
DP has recently had a pay rise and last week he was off on Annual Leave. On Friday when he was paid it looked like he had been paid short. He has been to his payrole dept today and they told him that his wage on friday was for the week that he had already worked and a week of holiday at his old rate of pay. They said that the reason his holiday was paid at the old rate is because they were accured before his pay rise. Is this right?
I recently had a pay rise too and my holiday pay has increased with it even though it was accured ages ago. Im totaly confused now. Does anyone have any advice.
Thanks