Is anyone able to clarify this for me please? My organisation give 28 days holiday per year for full-time hours (37.5 hpw). I do 30 hours per week over 5 days. My contract states I am entitled to 22.4 days per year (which is 80% of full-time hours). Is this correct (or fair)? I could understand a reduction in days if I didn't work every day but as I obviously only get paid for 30 hours per week is it right that I get a reduction in holiday entitlement? If I worked 30 hours over 4 days I would expect to get a reduction as one day of the week I wouldn't need to book leave for as it isn't a working day. I'd be really grateful if someone could explain this to me as we don't have an HR Department and it's confusing me. TIA