Hi everyone. I wonder if someone knows anything about the situation my husband is with his work.
He is a food and beverage manager at a hotel. He started working there 3.5 months ago. He absoloutly hates it and has found employment else where.
The problem i have is i don't understand if the email he recieved is potentially ripping him off. Both of us have been self employed all our working lives until my husband got this job so this is why we are confused.
My husband's contract says 1 months notice. He had 11.6 days holidays and worked 1 week in hand. He is on a salary of 18.5k. 40 hour contract.
His manager has emailed him to say.. taking into account his notice of 1 month and his outstanding holiday entitlement we would propose that your last working day would be 10.11.2019. Your holiday entitlement would cover the remainder of his holidays.
Depending on his hours that he works this weekand his necessary balancing payment his last day would be 11.11.2019 altho he isn't required to work the 11.11.2019.
His final payment would be this month that he would have been paid if he hadn't of told them he was leaving.
So does this offer mean his holiday pay and his week in hand wouldn't be paid as this is instead of working his notice ?
Sorry if this is a stupid question as we have both always been self employed.