Hello,
A friend of mine is in a sort of ongoing dispute with his employer - he says that when he was working for a research company, he was in an all girl team, and was always asked if he was gay, including things like being made to wear pink headphones, and asked to fill in colouring books - which he was then told off for doing apparently. It all sounds a bit bizarre, but eventually,, he said that he was offered to go to zero hours, which he did, but then just didn't get offered work when the rest of the team did.
He's saying because they are all female (and the team was often referred to as 'the research girls') he has been discriminated against.
He's determined to take them to tribunal if they don't give him some compensation - which I suppose is kind of reasonable as he wasn't given work for nearly a year. He has struggled to find other work since, so I guess that's as much the motivator as anything else.
Does discrimination have to be directly linked to loss of earnings? Is it discrimination to just not ask one sex into work if there is work available, or are employers allowed to do that?
I'm not sure what to advise - part of me wants to say 'give it up' but then if I heard about an employer excluding women from the workplace but only asking men in, I would definitely think it was unfair. Is anti-men discrimination covered in the same way?