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Final payslip complications

2 replies

oldmissmort · 29/06/2016 19:24

Sorry banging on about DS and the continuing saga of his rotten job. He has now handed in notice and told boss he was happy to do the required 30 days and was told not to return. Now has received payslip for May and the days in June he worked with a massive £1,000 deduction which purports to be an initial advance from 3 years ago!! DS knows nothing about this - have asked for explanation in writing which we have received and neither DS, DH or me can understand the explanation. It appears to be to do with payment in arrears when he first started. Where can DS go for free expert advice?

OP posts:
flowery · 29/06/2016 20:22

Why don't you post the wording of the explanation he has been given here, then perhaps we can interpret?

IceMaiden73 · 01/07/2016 07:18

Has he been paid in lieu of notice?

When he started was he paid in advance?

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