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Sick pay and holiday pay

37 replies

Halosheart · 11/03/2016 08:16

hi all :)

So my husband has been off sick since 16th February. He had already booked holiday for the time he was in hospital so that was fine. I informed his employer straight away and kept them updated, they also rang the ward for information whilst he was there so they know he was very ill. He was released on the 29th and a few days later managed to drive down to the office and drop off his sick note.
Last week he was only booked for one half day as holiday, therefore this week he has been paid £30.
He has not been paid any sick pay so far just holiday pay. My question is should he be getting statutory sick pay alongside each week?
We would have thought that this week as he was only paid for one half day, that the amount he was paid today should be boosted up by statutory sick pay for the other days. He normally works 5 days a week.
Any ideas?

OP posts:
Potatoface2 · 05/04/2016 21:16

hi.....his works had no business phoning the ward....thats can be classified as harrassment...didnt they believe you?.....and the ward should not have given out any information either!

BeaufortBelle · 05/04/2016 21:29

What does his contract say vis a vis entitlements to sick pay and holiday. If someone is on long term sick leave they are entitled to statutory annual leave unless the contract states they are entitled to contractual. It may be possible for your DH to request the time he has had off as annual leave in whole or in part instead of sick leave to alleviate the pay deductions. That does of course mean that he will eat into his a/l which is not necessarily a good idea if the context of wellbeing. However sacrificing a bit might help.

I agree that the company shouldn't have been telephoning the hospital; the hospital certainly shouldn't have been divulging any information without your dh's express consent.

Balletgirlmum · 05/04/2016 21:36

That sounds like a payment made instead of having his tax code altered for use of the car as a benefit in kind. He has to pay it for every week he has use of the car.

Can you confirm whether his sick note was dated 16th, 19th or 29th.

Halosheart · 05/04/2016 22:25

First sick note was issued upon discharge on the 29th Feb until 14th March, second not covered 14th March until the 28th March. We managed to get another member of staff pick up the car and drop it back for us so he got his first week of full sick pay last week.

OP posts:
BeaufortBelle · 05/04/2016 22:28

How long has he worked there and what's his sickness record like apart from this?

BeaufortBelle · 05/04/2016 22:29

It is difficult for anyone to advise without seeing his contract.

Balletgirlmum · 05/04/2016 23:50

If the sick note was dated 29th February that explains why he got no pay then. You should have filled in a self cert form for the first week & then got a sick note dated after that.

Balletgirlmum · 05/04/2016 23:52

It may not be too late to do the self cert for the first week.

Balletgirlmum · 05/04/2016 23:55

Reading back some of your posts I think that your error was in thinking that ringing in sick alone was sufficient rather than filling in a self cert form.

Sick pay should start 3 days after the date on the self cert form.

Halosheart · 06/04/2016 08:38

They mentioned that my husband should print off the form, fill it in and send it to them, but he was in hospital very ill the whole time. We thought ringing would be enough, especially when the company rang the hospital as well so we're fully aware.

OP posts:
Balletgirlmum · 06/04/2016 10:33

No, I'm afraid ringing isn't enough. The self-cert form is a legal form the employer has to keep on file in order to pay SSP. The company I work for has sick pay insurance & we also have to send a copy to them.

You can still fill it in now.

Balletgirlmum · 06/04/2016 10:39

However in the case of an employee bring genuinely unable to sign a form eg unconscious in a coma etc. Most reasonable employers would accept one filled in & signed pp by a next of kin.

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