My organisation are creating some new teams, and are assigning managers for those teams. The obvious candidate is on maternity leave, and hasn't been considered as "it's too long to wait and we need a permanent person, not a temp, in that role now".
I'm concerned this may be discrimination. But I need to be sure to make my point. I know if the roles were open for applicants, it would be discrimination not to consider her application, but in this case, where roles are being assigned without that, does that still count?
I don't know if Obvious Candidate would want the role and she probably wouldn't realise that she would otherwise have been top of the list.