Do any employment lawyers (or others) know the answer to this:
If a lawyer qualifies e.g. 5 years ago, but takes up 3 years of that with 3 maternity leaves of one year each, what is correct here and what is discriminatory?:
(a) saying that that lawyer is 5yr PQE or 2yr PQE
(b) paying the lawyer as a 5 yr PQE lawyer, or as a 2yr
(c) charging out the lawyer to clients as a 5 yr PQE or a 2yr
(d) promoting the lawyer to senior associate (mostly dependent on reaching 4yr PQE), on the basis that it would be discriminatory not to, or not promoting, on the basis that they are only viewed as 2yr PQE (all other assessment criteria aside)
(e) discussing all of the above between members of the partnership and HR (so at least everyone is in agreement and knows the score), or not discussing (on the basis that even discussing it might have some sort of discriminatory element)
(f) judging the lawyer at annual appraisal time as a 5yr PQE lawyer, or as a 2yr PQE lawyer.
Probably other permutations but that should be enough for now!
If you can help - thank you!