I suspect this is true, but in terms of daily practice who would know this.
Language has become so mangled that it isn't just about the law, whether clarified or not, what most people whether as users or suppliers have all had their language transed.
Each time anyone of us posts on FWR emphatically it is this, dont forget there are thousands (millions?) whose brains have not been reprogrammed by the Supreme Court, Mumsnet, JKR or even the brilliant nurses.
But my understanding is that in terms of the law, the court case was about the EA. ie the meaning of the word women within the act.
So if someone chooses to talk about a service for females, but is in fact trans inclusive, anyone challenging it would have to show how by not having that service genuinely only for biological women they were being discriminated against. ie was / is it a service that can or should only be for biological females. Swimming pools, public walks.
We no longer have the older traditional notions of why certain things should be for one biological sex.
There may well have to be a test case to illustrate that most member of the public seeing something advertised as being for women assumed it was about biological females.