One thing I'm confused by is how anti-doping testing intersects with sex testing.
Let's say you have a male athlete in a women's competition. To be in that competition, he must have identified/registered his sex as female. Consider also that the male athlete has normal male levels of testosterone. If so, why does this not get flagged as a potential doping violation? As this is way outside of the normal range for female athletes.
I might be way off base here but I can only think of three possibilities:
- when the sample is sent off for doping tests, the sex isn't included in the data given to the lab, and the lab just figures out the sex from analysing the genetic material of cells in the sample, comparing it to testosterone levels measured in the sample, or,
- sex is included in the data given to the lab, but the lab doesn't directly check testosterone levels, instead looking for other chemicals that might be evidence of actual doping, or,
- sex is included in the data given to the lab, and any discrepancy between this and the sample (doesn't match genetics of cells, isn't consistent with testosterone levels measured in sample) will be reported back as an anomaly, which then is disregarded by the organisation that requested the test
Which one is it, or, have I missed anything and it's none of these but something else?
I was thinking through this because I'm wondering how Imane Khelif passed the anti-doping tests in the IBA competitions, and in the Olympics right now. And also wondering how Caster Semenya - who is confirmed, by the CAS ruling, male with 5-ARD and normal male levels of testosterone - got through this when competing in 2016 Olympics, etc.
Thanks and hope it's okay to start a new thread on this, I didn't want it to get lost in the torrent of posts on the other thread. Would appreciate links to sourced information on this if anyone knows the answer!