It's interesting. Is this for the US?
Two points:
First point, there are roughly the same numbers of men and women in all ethnic/racial categories, so a goal which looks at, say, 30% of white men and 30% of white women PLUS white men (the extra nonbinary people) who don't identify as men is, in fact, building a numerical inequality for women into the scheme where male people will be hired in larger numbers in what they would deem a fair outcome. And this is true for women and men in all the race/ethnicity categories. So sex inequality looks like an intended outcome.
Second point: What are they using as the basis for deciding when they have arrived at fairness? Is it that whom they hire matches the percentages of the various demographic groups in the country they talk about here? Or are they trying to over-represent some groups?
It's not clear. If it's the US, then some groups which are in the less represented race/ethnicity categories are much smaller than other groups, and there's nothing in this quoted piece which suggests that they would try to match that fact.
For instance, Asian-Americans seem to be about 7% of all Americans, assuming it's the US we are talking about here. So a fair representation might be to have 7% of various industry roles for them. But this quote doesn't tell us that, because all those groups are lumped together, so nothing suggests to us that this is what would happen, rather than, say, hiring 20% of just Asian-Americans to fill that desired quota.
It is this fuzziness in the concepts of diversity and inclusion which has always annoyed me, especially when it treats half of humankind as the same as any minority grouping, so that a spoonful of this and a smidgen of that is seen as sufficient for female inclusion.
The 'spoonfuls and smidgens' would always be wrong, but for numerically tiny groups they can come close to fair representation. For women? Never.