No indication of any decrease in IQ after treatment.
Okay, this study is AMAZING.
It doesn't show what suggestionsplease says it does, unsurprisingly.
Okay, I guess it doesn't indicate any decrease, because it doesn't indicate anything about overall changes in IQ, and it seems the study was actively designed to try to avoid showing that while looking like it did.
I'd almost go so far as to say it's fraud. I note the authors - I see de Vries' name, one of the Dutch researchers who pulled the "let's switch the sex of gender dysphoria test" trick to get a "reduction in gender dysphoria".
So, the study gets off to a good start. It's gathering baseline data. IQ tests on a large population before treatment. Fantastic.
And they go back after 8 years. Great! But then what?
The obvious thing to do would be to conduct another IQ test, right? Right? ...
Apparently, they didn't. That's... disappointing. Why not? I guess it's more effort, but having gone to all the trouble to do the initial tests, and kept tabs on the population for 8 years (unlike other groups), surely you'd want to do this? (They still could. Maybe it was during Covid?)
Okay, let's accept they couldn't do another IQ test. So they look at academic achievement. Okay, that's a reasonable proxy. So, obviously, they look at how final academic achievement matches up to the original IQ tests, right? Look for any sort of loss versus peers?
Well, no, not exactly. They apparently have that information, but they're not presenting it. Why not? This is where it starts to look like fraud. Checking how well they're performing academically is the most important thing here - they have the information, and they're not revealing it.
So what are they saying? What was their null result they did choose to, very selectively, reveal?
"No reduction in correlation".
Okay, what does that mean?
IQ tests at 12 correlate to ultimate academic achievement. Higher IQ, higher academic achievement. (Not a super-strong correlation, but clearly correlated).
All they checked was that this was still true after puberty blockers. Initial IQ still correlated as strongly to academic achievement. So the initially-high-IQ children still did better than the initially-low-IQ.
Well, that's a big fat nothing.
It would be consistent with either
a) Puberty blockers not affecting IQ
b) Puberty blockers fairly uniformly reducing IQ
The only thing it suggests is that puberty blockers don't flatten IQ. They don't make the lower IQ children close the gap with the higher ones.
Fantastic. I don't think anyone ever thought that would be the effect.
So what the fuck is going on here? They apparently failed to collect the most useful data, and then did a sort of weird twist on the data they had to apparently try to generate an expected null effect. The aim basically seems to be to produce a paper that "looked at children's IQ" and "saw no effect" so that people can point at it.
Is there any sort of process whereby someone can get hold of their data to run the sensible analysis? What did the academic achievement of their cohort look like compared to the expected result for untreated children of the same IQ? What was the average difference? Not the correlation, the actual results?