I read the headline in this article ("Japan court rules mandatory sterilisation of people officially changing gender unconstitutional") and I thought 'What a barbaric requirement! Why on earth would the Japanese govt want to enforce sterilisation? Are they saying that trans people aren't fit to be parents?'
Then I realised that this might be the Guardian's polemical way of stating that a legal gender change in Japan exists in order to formalise the status of someone who has had gender reassignment surgery (of which the unindended byproduct is sterilisation) - and has therefore not been permissable without this surgery until the recent court case.
This seems like a ramped-up version of the same kind of distortion as that which is created when a woman's right not to be in a same-sex marriage without having first consented to it is spoken of as the 'spousal veto' on transition. Is this right, or am I missing something?