Does anyone else think this statement is very feminist lite? Seems to gloss over the issue of women as a sex class being subjected to violence by the sex class of men.
I am asking as it is the opening paragraph of a "Joint VAWG Sector General Election Manifesto" supported by "a coalition of over 70 leading organisations working to end violence against women and girls".
VAWG is a gendered issue which is deeply rooted in societal inequality. It is violence that is “directed against a woman because she is a woman or that affects women disproportionately”. Women are more likely than men to experience multiple incidents of abuse and different types of abuse (intimate partner violence, sexual assault and stalking) - in particular sexual violence. Any woman or girl can experience VAWG, however those who face other forms of inequality as a result of their race or ethnicity, wealth or social class, religion, sexuality, gender identity, disability, mental health or age are more likely to experience abuse and less likely to receive support and justice. As VAWG is a cause and consequence of gender inequality and other intersecting inequalities, it is essential that we situate our work to end it alongside wider ambitions to tackle said structural inequalities. For example, policies to tackle economic inequality, poverty, health inequalities and to dismantle the hostile immigration environment
https://www.endviolenceagainstwomen.org.uk/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/Full-VAWG-Manifesto-150923.pdf
Do you think they really believe this, or feel that they have to talk in this social sciences psuedo babble so that poor male politicians aren't to upset as being identified as part of a group that is the cause of male violence against women.
Do they really think that if somehow in the future social inequalities were erased no woman would experience male violence?