English doesn't have gendered nouns. I think boats are always "she"; I can't think of any other examples at all. Similarly we don't then have to alter adjectives or ay verb forms to match the gendered noun.
But many other languages have at least 2 genders to their nouns, or even 3 (masc, fem, neuter) (There may be others with more but I'm not aware of them).
So in English, if we talk about a man but refer to him as "she" (for example), it stands out. And this flavours the debate over the issue.
Does this have a similar impact in other languages? Un homme isn't going to be une homme (or in the circumstances, is it?) I guess they "become" une femme and everything else about them linguistically also has to be feminine? How does a "lady dick" work, linguistically, where "lady" (fem) SHOULD agree with "dick" (masc) but doesn't? (other examples are, I'm sure, available!)
I kind of feel that where everything else in the sentence is used in the "neuter" sense, it can both dilute and amplify the effect of calling a person by their non-birth sex, but maybe the opposite might be true in gendered languages? Does anyone know?