Abortions are made illegal in some circumstances by the Offences Against the Person Act 1861. The relevant section (58) refers specifically to "women" who procure their own miscarriage being liable. If that section doesn't apply, for whatever reason, then there is no criminal act taking place.
If "woman" no longer means the biological sex, and instead means a gender identity, surely females who do not have that gender identity (including females who do not have that gender identity because they do not believe in gender ideology) are not included in that section and so aren't subject to the requirement for two doctors to sign off on an abortion.
That's how it works now, right?
Or are we to continue in the vein whereby "woman" means a biological sex when doing so gives you the right to control human females, and "woman" means a gender identity when doing so gives you the right to control human females?