I think it is relevant because it appears that it was the victim's trans status that led to the attack.
Where is the evidence of this?
I agree it's quite possible - presumably the victim was making that they were trans clear, so the perpetrator presumably must have deliberately selected them rather than a female escort.
But if he had selected a female escort and stabbed her, that wouldn't have been a hate crime.
No-one would have said "the victim's female status led to the attack". The logic here isn't clear.
Anyway, you shouldn't leap to conclusions. Especially from media reports in this area where we know they are incentivised to and do repeatedly mislead.
We're still trying to clear up the persistent lie that the Orlando Pulse nightclub attacks were some sort of anti-gay hate crime.
People really want to believe things are hate crimes when the victims happen to be part of some part of minority - not even when there's no real evidence of it, but even when there is conclusive evidence that it's false, as with the Pulse attack.