Hi all, we recently had a workshop where the language used was 'people have periods'.
I asked that they consider using different language going forward with the following which I took from the 'standingforwomen' site
'Only women have periods. We do not say that 'people produce sperm'. Throughout the legal framework of women's sex based rights and protections, we use the word woman. It is essential that this word is retained to mean 'adult human female' only. Without this word, all our rights and protections are lost.
Our rights were never created for our gender but our sex. Our sex being female, the sex that bears children, the sex that requires maternity rights; privacy rights' equality with the male sex in the work place; specific health issues; reproductive rights and so on. If our rights become dependent upon gender, then they are no longer women's rights.
They've come back with ' the language was appropriate, deliberately chosen to be inclusive'.
I want to respond back with something definitive that explains it's not about inclusivity. Can anyone help me craft something as I'm not an expert but feel strongly about this because if I don't keep on, they will continue to use that language until everyone else feels that it should be used without question and don't think about the wider impact for women.
Sorry for longwinded post. This is a new account for me as I can't seem to resurrect my previous one but I have been here a while.