Right, help me, a bleeding heart liberal arty farty type, understand this so I can relay it to DH:
Male person is involved in organised crime, convicted for serious fraud and jailed for 15 years.
Towards the end of their incarceration they realise that they have had gender identity issues and lives "as a woman" for two years in jail. Living "as a woman" for this person means wearing a wig and make up and they attend GIC appointments with prison officers and start hormone treatment.
They are released from (the female wing of the) prison and apply for a GRC in their new name as they meet the criteria for self ID.
Using the GRC they get a new passport, driving license and birth certificate. There is now no trace of their sex, former name or conviction, it is as if they are a completely new person as of the date on their GRC.
This person is quickly pulled back into organised crime and realises they can launder ill-gotten money with their new, clean identity.
They want to purchase property with illegally gained funds. The money laundering officer runs the usual checks and finds that the client is a pillar of society since the date of the GRC, but beyond that there is no record of anything at all.
If the MLO refuses to act for the client because they can't verify the client's history they are committing a hate crime because turning the client down on the basis of their trans status, which is a protected characteristic, is against the law.
If the MLO acts for the client they are complicit in laundering dirty money through their firm, which is against the law.
Either way, the MLO is personally liable and could be charged.
Am I understanding the issue correctly?