So, some clearly MRA type on twitter posted to say:
'If one defines "rape" in a gender-neutral manner, as "non-consensual sexual intercourse," the percentages of women and men reporting having been raped in the past 12 months are essentially the same, with most of the men raped by a female perpetrator.'
I am no statistician, but I cannot believe this could be true, if only based on the sheer number of women versus men who I know and who are affected by rape. There were 'stats' attached. Does anyone know where these come from and whether there is any substance to them? Not keen to interact with this guy obviously.