That's wrong in most respects, GrumpyGran8.
Hyperandrogenism just means high testosterone, it is not a specific condition it's a description of someone's testosterone levels.
PCOS is a description of a set of symptoms caused by high testosterone. However it is not a condition either in that it doesn't have a specific cause. Also PCOS is not a DSD - a woman with PCOS is by definition not intersex.
In terms of intersex conditions/DSDs, 5-ARD is one DSD relatively common in athletes with DSDs en.wikipedia.org/wiki/5%CE%B1-Reductase_deficiency
Essentially it is a lack of DHT (androgen) resulting in feminized genitals at birth (the DHT is important in utero for male genital formation) The person however has XY chromosomes, internal testes and is sensitive to testosterone. During puberty testosterone is produced in normal male amounts and the personal will typically develop a male gender identity.
Here's a brief discussion of 5ARD
www.psychologytoday.com/gb/blog/the-imprinted-brain/201702/boys-will-be-boys-even-if-raised-believed-be-girls
In terms of PCOS vs DSDs, women with PCOS have testosterone levels that are well below the male range. In addition, PCOS is linked to obesity and other things - PCOS has no link to sporting prowess. On the other hand, an athlete with, say, 5ARD, is probably at a disadvantage compared to non-intersex males due to their inability to produce DHT from testosterone, but it wouldn't seem that they are likely to be disadvantaged compared to females without DSDs.
The problem with these cases is that you have one or more athletes with free testosterone levels of 469.3 pmol/l, according to published reports on a race in which Semenya, Wambui, and Niyonsaba competed. Given that it is so, the next question is obviously HOW is that athlete producing 469.3 pmol/l of free testosterone - they are obviously not taking steroids, so it is a natural biological state.
Now we know that women with PCOS are (a) not particularly athletic, and (b) in cases where even 5 nmol/l total testosterone is found (far below the ~30 nmol/l found here) very severely ill (at levels of 3 nmol/l you would experience hirsutism possible infertility, etc.), so it is very safe to say that these athletes do NOT have PCOS but rather have an intersex condition.
In terms of what we know about human biology, testosterone is produced in the testes, ovaries, and adrenal glands, however only in the testes in the volumes required to produce a free testosterone level of 469.3 pmol/l
So given that is so there really is no conclusion other than the fact that one or more of these athletes has testes, as how else could they produce so much testosterone?
The next point is possible saying - they have testes, they shouldn't be allowed to compete, that's obvious. The reply to that is 'prove it'. Because while some people would say 'it's obvious', when you're dealing with sport, you need proof. And these athletes do probably lack DHT, so they are at least deficient compared to non-DSDed male athletes in that respect.
So what the IAAF has done is tried to show that 'more' testosterone is advantageous and use that to exclude them. They have done this by looking at results in the different events and saying there was no correlation between higher testosterone and performance at athletics meets, EXCEPT for the 800m and a couple of others.
Statistically this is a bit of a fiddle IMO, because if you have a set of female athletes without DSDs, and you are comparing performance to testosterone levels, then you might well not find a correlation - it doesn't seem that for women there's much difference between a natural level say 1 nmol/l and 0.5 nmol/l testosterone in terms of athletic performance.
If however you add in three athletes with DSDs into the 800m event, who have MUCH higher testosterone levels, you are no longer comparing 0.5 nmol/l with say 1.5 nmol/l and saying 'nope, it doesn't matter for a woman if she has high or low natural testosterone', you instead have a tiny pool of data with 64 athletes in it, and 3 of them have testosterone in around the 30 nmol/l range.
And of course those 3 are winning. And the statistical test comes back saying 'testosterone is correlated with performance for 800m'. Which isn't necessarily accurate, because that correlation is coming from three athletes with DSDs!
But the IAAF have used this to make this ruling.
Personally I think it's a bit of a sham in the way they've done it.
But they need to have some 'science'. And most 'sports science' is anything but scientific.
Personally I would say that athletes who have testes producing testosterone and likely have viable sperm, etc., should in that particular case be classed as male.
That's obviously a 'feeling'. As we cannot ever scientifically prove that in fact elite athletes with say 5ARD have an advantage over those without it. Because the pool of people is far too small.
Hell, they are struggling to show that non-DSD men who have been through male puberty and have male skeletons and muscles and take 1 year of suppressants are not advantaged over natal women.
So good luck ever proving that someone with a rare condition is advantaged. Even though IMO it's obvious.