I keep looking at reports and find the depth of analysis is not nuanced enough around the effect of male violence on women’s capacity to earn. This is not my area of expertise as I'm not a statistician – I just like asking the questions….
I started here, Has 86% of the effects of austerity fallen on women. That’s high level and not bottom up. So I started to look for statistics on disabled women. Progressed to this WBG report on Disabled Women and Austerity. I have lots of questions I want answering and don't know where to find the answers, or if they exist. I emailed WBG who didn't have the answers. (They also ignored my request to stop conflating sex and gender by using such expressions as gender-based budgets
).
I looked into a source for that WBG report and found the following from the ONS :
- The GSS Harmonised Standards focus on a ‘core’ definition of people whose condition currently limits their activity. In summary the core definition covers people who report:
- (current) physical or mental health condition(s) or illnesses lasting or expected to last 12 months or more; and
- the condition(s) or illness(es) reduce their ability to carry out day-to-day activities.
- This differs from the DDA-based definition of disability previously used in the LFS in that it excludes the following groups which are “non-core” under the new Act:
- people with a progressive condition (specified in the Equality Act as HIV/AIDS, cancer or multiple sclerosis) that does not currently reduce their ability to carry out day-to-day activities.
- people whose activities would be restricted only without medication or treatment.
- As with all new questions, they are subject to ONS monitoring of responses for several quarters, and should therefore be interpreted with caution, especially when comparing with estimates for previous periods
Confused again 
Re the WBG report itself, references are made about women being paid less than men, but without an indication as to what proportion of those deemed disabled are women, it’s hard to context it.
So the questions I want answering are:
- In general, what is the definition of disabled for statistical purposes and does it capture ill health in women that cause incapacity to earn some extent? For example, if a woman has PTSD from DV:
a. PTSD is not necessarily counted as a disability.
b. The effects of PTSD are on a spectrum of disablement from partial to full.
c. Is the cause of the ill health captured eg born with; acquired through male violence / accident?
How are all these variances captured if at all?
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Of all those registered as disabled in the UK, what percentage are women?
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What is the actual number of disabled women including those with ill health (DWIH)?
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What percentage of the total disabled is DWIH?
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What percentage of those DWIH women are lone female parents?
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What percentage of those disabled women are over 55 and over 65?
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Within age ranges, what percentage are single/married/lone parent (both school age and adult children) / carer?
Is there a reliable repository of statistics on women that feminists can use to pull out the effects of austerity? Do the statistics about disability capture the full spectrum of the ill health of women, from partial to total disablement, from different causes - specifically male violence? Do the statistics further capture sex discrimination at play in women obtaining work of any kind as well as pay rates and does this vary by age?
I suspect the answer is no at all of the above.....
Can anyone provide a summary of what there is and what there is not?