I would be very interested to hear from trans-inclusive feminists in regard to these questions as I have not seen them tackled from that perspective.
I will use the terms "XX" and "XY" to refer to biological sex, because "male" and "female" are now ambiguous while "AFAB" and "AMAB" have been objected to as appropriative by some intersex people.
- On sex-based discrimination. As a trans-inclusive feminist, presumably you believe that gender identity should replace biological sex when it comes to how we categorise people - and that the notion of sex-based discrimination is no longer valid but should be replaced by a notion of gender discrimination whereby people are privileged or disadvantaged due to their gender identity. So if there are two people, one XX and one XY, who both have the same non-binary gender identity (e.g. they both identify as "genderqueer") then in gender terms they are the same and they will have the same privileges and/or disadvantages. But what if these two fictional people both apply for the same job, and have all the same qualifications etc, but the XX person is passed over in favour of the XY because the boss fears that the XX person might get pregnant? How, as a trans-inclusive feminist, can you account for that situation or even have the language to describe it?
- On the words "man" and "woman" to refer to gender identities. If "woman" and "man" refer to gender identities, then why is there any correlation between womanhood and XX-ness at all? Presumably only because of sexist socialisation. In an ideal world, there would be just as many XX men as there would be XY men. How could it be otherwise, without falling into the essentialist idea that womanhood, in the absence of socialisation, would normally spring forth from XX biology? However, if that is so then surely the very use of the terms "woman" and "man" to refer to gender identities is extremely sexist, not to mention transphobic! "Woman" and "man" previously meant - and still do mean to 99% of people - exactly the same thing as "XX" and "XY". If you are trying to push apart gender identity from biological sex then naming those gender identities after the biological sexes seems entirely counter-productive. Do you agree, and would you prefer it if instead of "man" and "woman" the gender identities were know and "bleep" and "bloop" for example? Or do you think that "man" and "woman" are the best terms for the job? If so how would you propose mitigating the tremendous confusion of the man-on-the-clapham-omnibus, who still hasn't got his head around the idea that psychology is not determined by sex, when he is told that, now, "man" and "woman" refer to psychological rather than biological categories?