I've been ruminating on this angle for some time, as I have often seen when the subject of the wage gap comes up, how a common rebuttal arrives in the form of something like: "The wage gap all but disappears when you factor in women's choices."
However in a culture of such widespread sexual misconduct how can that choice ever be considered anything like equal relative to a man's? When a woman makes her "choice" and a component of that choice is how likely she is to encounter harrasment on any given day surely that renders void the entire point that women have access to the same choices in life as men?
It also reinforces the problem of women in STEM and other areas that are heavily imbalanced. Does what I'm saying make any sense?