I'm not sure we do, but I wonder.
Do the Gillick guidelines get stretched to the point that sexually active children who become known to health services are not thought of as abuse victims but as potentially competent to give consent under age? Do they focus attention on 'is this person competent to give consent' as opposed to 'who the hell is having sex with a 12 year old and in what context?'
I'm absolutely no expert in any of this but I do remember the original Gillick case and the damage caused by applying the age of consent as a blunt instrument, but do we have to look again at this and say that in a sexually exploitative culture that Victoria Gillick was in fact much more right than many (including me) were willing to allow at the time?