Treading softly as I do not want to start an argument, I really want to be clear in my own mind.
I agree with a woman's right to have an abortion. I have seen many a debate about it and most of the reasons for 'pro-choice' (I have put this in brackets because I hate the term pro-choice and pro-life) is that a woman should not have to go through pregnancy and birth if she does not want to. Accepted. But people I know who have had abortions have not done so because of a fear of pregnancy and birth, they have done so because they did not want to raise a child, they were not in the right place, emotionally or financially. Accepted.
What I am trying to understand is this: Why does a man have to support a child conceived when he was using protection? (I have tried lots of different ways to type this question and am aware it sounds crap however I put it)
If a woman is using protection, so is taking the view that conception is unlikely, and falls pregnant but cannot financially afford to raise a child, she can abort. But a man in the same situation does not have the same choices. Why is the argument always, 'The man knew what he was risking when he had sex, sex can lead to children, etc.' We all know this, yet a woman does have the final say and will never end up having to support a child she does not want to have, even if the father wants is very much. Is this fair?
If the argument is that a child is an accepted risk of having sex, should that not apply to both parties?
Please just help me get this clear in my mind as I personally feel that I could not ask a man for financial support to raise a child he never expected to be conceived if I have the opportunity to abort but decide I want to keep it. Is this totally anti-feminist or is my thinking understandable, just misguided?