How is this possible?

[DonnieDark]

I had IVF ten years ago. My AMH was 0.3 at 32, and even with fertility drugs there were virtually no eggs and that I'd never conceive without help.

Then when I was 40 I fell pregnant completely out of the blue.

How did this happen if I had no eggs left? Did one follicle hide and pop out an egg ten years after I was told (and saw on scans) mine had run out?

I still have regular periods too, which doesn't make sense if I've run out of eggs.

Anyone else experienced this?

That should read 'I was told I'd never conceive without help'

Periods aren't eggs, it's the lining of your uterus coming away. During your cycle, the lining thickens ready to revive a fertilised egg, if there isn't one, the lining sheds and starts again. That's why you still get periods when you've had your tubes tied. And it is possible to miss things on scans, they're fantastic things but still not 100%

Well yes, I know what periods are 🙃

Having your tubes tied doesnt stop the hormones leading to egg release because the ovaries are still intact.

Without ovulation the period is abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), or anovulatory bleeding. Seems odd for that to go on for 10 years...

I had scans every day and the number of follicles matched the number of eggs harvested, so that seems pretty accurate.

Life finds a way!?
Congratulations!

Jurassic Park!

Sorry I should've said - my IVF worked so i have a DC but the complete surprise pregnancy I ended up terminating 😥

Hi, I'm on progyluton to induce monthly periods. I'm 6 days late,feeling ovary cramps, low back pain,slight nausea, breast tingling etc. Have done 2 tests negative. Can anyone help as in why am I experiencing these symptoms? Or is it I tested too early. Thanks in advance x