A couple of years ago my routine smear came back showing CIN3 changes and I had lletz treatment to remove the cells. Six months later I had a 'test of cure' smear that still showed moderate changes so had a further cone biopsy. I was due to have another test of cure smear 6 months later but by this point was pregnant.
Almost a year later I had another smear (that I had to pester the docs for). My results came back saying that I had tested negative for HPV so it is unlikely that I will have any cell changes so the sample wouldn't be tested further.
I just feel a bit uncomfortable with this - is this test really enough? I have never missed a smear but have in the past gone from a perfectly normal one to severe cell changes in 3 years. My husband is also convinced that first time around with the Lletz treatment that I tested negative then but still had cell changes.
So my question is... is the HPV test enough? Could I have had HPV at some point in the past year, but it's now cleared up? Therefore it could have caused cell changes??