I’m reading (and loving) Hamlet for the first time before I go and see the NT Live performance at the cinema this Thursday.
From listening to you Tube videos/podcasts and the text I understand that one of the themes of the play relates to madness, and the question of is Hamlet ‘mad’?
Obviously our modern day understanding of metal health conditions and psychiatry are different to those at the time of Shakespeare’s day but I am impressed by his writing and portrayal of MH symptoms we would recognise today (low mood, suicidal ideations, pressured speech, flight of ideas, unkempt appearance etc).
I would love to know how the inclusion of a ghost would have been perceived by the audience at the time of its initial production. Today, visual and auditory hallucinations of a dead father encouraging revenge would definitely be perceived as symptoms of psychosis, but when Shakespeare wrote it did (some? more?) of the general population think that such things were real? Or would the audience then as now suspend their belief and understand the ghost as an important device to get the plot started?