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Original poster

Strike Pay

9 replies

Silentmama · 19/04/2023 19:53

Just checked my paycheck and the day I was on strike has been recorded as 'unpaid leave' . I understood that it would be 1/365th of my wages - but it is a little bit more. Is this the same for other people please?

OP posts:
Hungryfrogs23 · 19/04/2023 21:43

Surely it would be 1/195th of your wages as they are the days teachers are paid to work?

OutDamnedSpot · 19/04/2023 22:29

Scotland or England? As I understand it, in England it should be 1/365, but in Scotland it was slightly less (not sure why).

https://neu.org.uk/pay-strike-action-faq

Original poster
Silentmama · 19/04/2023 23:07

Ahh thank you for the link- that makes it clearer - I'm part time - and they have taken the FTE off of me. Nicely depressing.

OP posts:
Original poster
Silentmama · 19/04/2023 23:23

Hungryfrogs23 · 19/04/2023 21:43

Surely it would be 1/195th of your wages as they are the days teachers are paid to work?

No. There was a court case where teachers successfully argued that they regularly work outside of the 195 days - and 'set hours', they work evenings, weekend and in the holidays. As a result who is to know 'which day' a teacher is working (I bet there is a teacher somewhere working every day!)

As a result by striking on 1 day - you can only be proven to remove your labour on that day and not on the rest!

I personally think it is unfair that they can take 'fte' pay off a part timer, unsure how you could legally argue this though!

OP posts:
Postapocalypticcowgirl · 20/04/2023 07:35

Silentmama · 19/04/2023 23:07

Ahh thank you for the link- that makes it clearer - I'm part time - and they have taken the FTE off of me. Nicely depressing.

Pretty sure they should not have done this, you should query and check with your rep.

ProfessorGambol · 20/04/2023 17:01

I’m part time and have not had the FTE deducted, just 1/365 of my salary. Could be worth checking.

lanthanum · 20/04/2023 20:31

Surely it hinges on how much labour you withdrew - which depend on whether you were scheduled to work the whole day or only part of it. If you were on strike for a whole day, that would be 1/365 of fte. If you only normally work half of that day, then it would be half of that. If there are two strike days and you were not working on one, but striking on the other, that would be 1/365 for the one you were on strike for and no deduction for the other.

Original poster
Silentmama · 20/04/2023 22:08

Putting it as simply as I can..

I work 50% of the time - I earn £365

If I went to work 100% of the time - I'd be on double pay - or £730

As a part timer - 1/365 of my wages is £1
As a full time 1/365 of my wages is £2

By calculating the full time equivalent - i'm treated unfairly. How can me striking for one day - mean suddenly I earn more on that day - than any other day I work?

OP posts:
Harumff · 21/04/2023 08:29

Sorry but you're wrong. It shouldn't matter how many days/hours you actually work, everybody should have 1/365th of a full time equivalent salary deducted for every full day they strike. This is because a full timer works all year round (in theory). So, in your example, you say that someone working full time earns £730 and 1/365th of this, one day's pay, is £2.
When you work only 50% of the time you are still working for £2 a day you just work half as many days as a full timer and so get half the pay - £365 in your example. Still £2 a day.
The alternative would have been to only deduct 50% of 1/365th from your 50% salary but the answer would still have been the same - £2 per day. It is therefore easiest and common practice to calculate it as 1/365th of a full time salary.

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