GCSE-I can't explain !

[boudicca]

I don't know if any of you can help-
my daughter is doing some last minute English coursework on Macbeth-I'm out of my depth-she needs to know why Macbeth referred to his hands as 'hangmans'??????
Any ideas would be much appreciated

I did a websearch - he called them "hangman's hands" after he killed the king, presumably because he'd just killed someone with them?

And also because a hangman might be seen as someone who kills, but on orders from someone else - ie. Macbeth is the one who kills Duncan but it is Lady Macbeth who is actually the driving force behind the murders, IYKWIM? ie he's got 'hangman's hands' because he is carrying out Lady Macbeth's murderous ideas.

I could be talking rubbish - it's a long time since I did GCSE English!

wow now it all makes sense- thanks so much !