DS1 (10) was diagnosed as having ADHD at the beginning of the year. I was pleased (well, I suppose, I felt vindicated really, not pleased). DS1's Dad (my ExH) has not agreed with the diagnosis - he thinks DS1 is just a typical lively boy, doesn't want him labelled etc. I think he sees the diagnosis as a slight on his genes or something.
Anyhow. We have argued over meducation. I am for, he is against. We finally agreed in trying it out for a 3 month period. I have DS1 for about 80% of the time, and since he's been on the medication, I think it has been a real improvement. He can concentrate at school - isn't getting into trouble. He is definitely less hyper at home, and seems to just slow down a bit so he can make the right decision rather than just leap headfirst or mouthfirst into everything. He's still the same boy, just calmer and more in control than he has ever been before. He says he is happier too, which is fab.
ExH says that this proves nothing. That the tablets are just 'dulling' DS, and that while he can see they have an effect (1) he (ExH) doesn't like the effect and (2) they would affect everyone the same way, ADHD or not.
IMO, the tablets (1) are helping DS1 be the person he wants to be and (2) if he didn't have ADHD, they wouldn't affect his behaviour.
Can anyone help me out? I really don't think DS is 'dulled', but he is much nicer to be around. I want to be abloe to say to ExH - yes DS1 DOES have ADHD because the tablet ARE helping, and they wouldn't if he didn't have it. Is there any proof that this is how it works? I need to get ExH to understand, and he is more likely to if I can give him proof/research etc. TIA.