Am struggling with a legal thingie here.
I think that it's illegal to means test direct payments where the equivalent provided service would not be means tested. In effect, this means you cannot means test DPs where the equivalent service would be free. But it appears that social services can pick and choose locally what they do and do not charge for.
Generally speaking, is a home care service for a disabled child chargeable and thus possibly would attract means testing? Or is it (like legal aid) based on the child's income not the parents' and so they are immune?
I think SS are means-testing my DP application, and I'm not convinced they are allowed to do that. Any guidance before I fire off stroppy letter would be helpful!