This is a new term to me. I now understand what it means having seen someone else's thread about it on another board.
My question is, does the following count as stealthing or not: Sex with Dh, married 20 years. Pre-menopausal so there's still a risk of pregnancy. Woman was drunk, Dh had only had 2 drinks. He knew he needed to use a condom, but chose not to. Woman was too drunk to realise at the time.
How would you handle this situation?