Before I ask this I have to say that I am not trying to shock or upset anyone with this topic. Also this isn't a way for me to get a thrill I just need a perspective on this.
So I am a married man of 51 who has only ever had a sexual relationship with one woman.
We met when I was 19 and she was 27 and in a disintegrating marriage. We have been together for over 30 yrs and our sex life was good until my DW hit the menopause. We are still sexually active but it is sparse and my wife has body issues although I think she is gorgeous and as sexually appealing as she ever was.
Our relationship has been monogamous although my wife did have a short affair early in our relationship, she has been faithful and loving to me ever since and I love her deeply.
We have tried various things in our sex life but nothing more experimental than a little light bondage, I like to be dominated.
Recently I have had a strong urge to preform oral sex on my wife immediately after I ejeculate. When I told her this she pulled a face and said she thought it was 'gay'. I have never considered myself gay or bi and have no inclination towards other men. Also I do not want anyone else involved in our relationship and would not want to do this if another man was to ejeculate in my wife, I don't have cuckold fantasies.
Is this 'gay' as my wife suggests? Should I try broaching the subject again, I don't want to coerce her into doing something she feels weird about.
We do incorporate oral sex in our routine from time to time, so maybe I should just go for it and see if she likes it?
Any advice would be welcome.