Me and husband are divorcing. And I’m going to buy him out as I can afford the mortgage on my own. Before we bought our house and before we got married, me and my husband lived in a property that my dad owned. It was an £80k mortage, he put down £40k then re mortgaged his own house for the other £40k. Which we paid him the monthly payments for. (I paid abit more as I had my business downstairs in this property and we lived in the flat above) he then sold it for £150k. He paid off his remaining bit of the mortage, which left around £50k which he let us keep. This money has always been in my account. After we spent some on our house and holidays etc, I decided to split what was left giving us £15k each and sent it to his bank. Can I now not include that in the funds to buy him out? We never would have had that money if it weren’t for my dad, but not sure if it’s classed as his because we are married. Any help would be appreciated